Kind of a legal-oriented Q, but here goes.
My understanding is that if a DN owner receives a complaint / demand-for-transfer from a TM-holder, he can defeat it by showing that he acquired the DN BEFORE the TM was registered. (Correct?)
My question is this: what if the DN was indeed originally purchased before the TM-registration, but was sold in a secondary market after the TM was registered. So User A purchases, say, fancywidgets.com, in 1997, then a company starts selling Fancy Widgets in 1999 and registers a TM for "Fancy Widgets"...what if User B buys fancywidgets.com from User A in 2002, with the express intent to sell it to the new Fancy Widgets company...can he defeat a complain from Fancy Widgets by showing that the DN was bought before TM registration, or was that defense destroyed because he only acquired it after TM registration?
My understanding is that if a DN owner receives a complaint / demand-for-transfer from a TM-holder, he can defeat it by showing that he acquired the DN BEFORE the TM was registered. (Correct?)
My question is this: what if the DN was indeed originally purchased before the TM-registration, but was sold in a secondary market after the TM was registered. So User A purchases, say, fancywidgets.com, in 1997, then a company starts selling Fancy Widgets in 1999 and registers a TM for "Fancy Widgets"...what if User B buys fancywidgets.com from User A in 2002, with the express intent to sell it to the new Fancy Widgets company...can he defeat a complain from Fancy Widgets by showing that the DN was bought before TM registration, or was that defense destroyed because he only acquired it after TM registration?