- Joined
- Apr 2, 2006
- Messages
- 201
- Reaction score
- 20
Hello all.
I need an answer to a very specific issue that has been brought to my attention...
Under Federal US Trademark Law (NOT UDRP) is a monetized/parked domain considered use in commerce?
I am told that current case law does not support this interpretation, even though it seems counter-intuitive to me.
I've read through the appropriate sections of the Lanham Act that define commercial use, but I can't find any citations or further info that directly apply to monetized/parked domains. I think I need to look at how the courts are interpreting monetization/parking.
If anyone can steer me in the right direction to find some precedents or refinements to the code IN RE this, I would be most grateful.
Again, to be clear, I'm interested in a definition/interpretation of the US Trademark Law as to what constitutes "use in commerce", not UDRP panels' decisions.
Thanks in advance,
Steve
I need an answer to a very specific issue that has been brought to my attention...
Under Federal US Trademark Law (NOT UDRP) is a monetized/parked domain considered use in commerce?
I am told that current case law does not support this interpretation, even though it seems counter-intuitive to me.
I've read through the appropriate sections of the Lanham Act that define commercial use, but I can't find any citations or further info that directly apply to monetized/parked domains. I think I need to look at how the courts are interpreting monetization/parking.
If anyone can steer me in the right direction to find some precedents or refinements to the code IN RE this, I would be most grateful.
Again, to be clear, I'm interested in a definition/interpretation of the US Trademark Law as to what constitutes "use in commerce", not UDRP panels' decisions.
Thanks in advance,
Steve