this is strictly an intellectual exercise, not a practical question, for reasons that are too complicated to explain in one sentence.
Anyway:
Lets say that a person has a domain name in the form of [CelebrityName].com like KevinCostner.com etc. Lets say the owner of the domain contacts the celebrity's agent, and informs him that he is willing to sell the domain name to the celebrity for one dollar, in exchange for the celebrity phoning two of the domain owner's friends for a couple minutes per phone call. Is this bad faith registration/usage or not? On one hand, UDRP policy allows people to "sell" domain names to trademark owners for equal or less than the cost of the registration, without it being bad faith. On the other hand, perhaps a person could argue that the phone call increases the "value" of the deal to the point where it exceeds registration fees, thereby rendering the transaction in bad faith.
For the sake of argument, lets assume that the current usage of the domain was for a non-commercial fan site for the celebrity, in good faith.
Anyway:
Lets say that a person has a domain name in the form of [CelebrityName].com like KevinCostner.com etc. Lets say the owner of the domain contacts the celebrity's agent, and informs him that he is willing to sell the domain name to the celebrity for one dollar, in exchange for the celebrity phoning two of the domain owner's friends for a couple minutes per phone call. Is this bad faith registration/usage or not? On one hand, UDRP policy allows people to "sell" domain names to trademark owners for equal or less than the cost of the registration, without it being bad faith. On the other hand, perhaps a person could argue that the phone call increases the "value" of the deal to the point where it exceeds registration fees, thereby rendering the transaction in bad faith.
For the sake of argument, lets assume that the current usage of the domain was for a non-commercial fan site for the celebrity, in good faith.