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- Aug 16, 2005
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Here's an issue that I don't understand about trademarks:
When one is given a trademark, it is given in a particular class (or classes). Other's can then get a trademark with the same name in another class as long as it is not likely to cause confusion. For example, company A can get a TM for XYZ in the class of software and Company B can get a trademark for XYZ in the class of boating. No problems.
So, this leads me to the question that relates to domain names. Let's say there is a trademark XYZ in the class of music recordings and the owner of that trademark does not own the domain. I pick it up at a drop auction. Why is it that I cannot use the argument that I will be using that domain name for the purpose of something entirely different than music recordings?
When one is given a trademark, it is given in a particular class (or classes). Other's can then get a trademark with the same name in another class as long as it is not likely to cause confusion. For example, company A can get a TM for XYZ in the class of software and Company B can get a trademark for XYZ in the class of boating. No problems.
So, this leads me to the question that relates to domain names. Let's say there is a trademark XYZ in the class of music recordings and the owner of that trademark does not own the domain. I pick it up at a drop auction. Why is it that I cannot use the argument that I will be using that domain name for the purpose of something entirely different than music recordings?