- Joined
- Mar 6, 2006
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I read somewhere a case that I cannot now find ,that as soon as a company
registered "A" domain name they immediately started accruing IP rights in the
name simply from the fact it was registered. Any one give me any
assistance in proving that IS the case ?. In fact it is to help me fight
a trademark application that I am in middle of that they are desperately
trying to win by pointing to the fact I was NOT using(Parking) the domain until
a certain date. My argument to counter that will be that as soon as the
domain was regged I started accruing rights in the name in question (as I have
seen a case somewhere to that effect thus my post as cannot find).
Thanks
DG
registered "A" domain name they immediately started accruing IP rights in the
name simply from the fact it was registered. Any one give me any
assistance in proving that IS the case ?. In fact it is to help me fight
a trademark application that I am in middle of that they are desperately
trying to win by pointing to the fact I was NOT using(Parking) the domain until
a certain date. My argument to counter that will be that as soon as the
domain was regged I started accruing rights in the name in question (as I have
seen a case somewhere to that effect thus my post as cannot find).
Thanks
DG