- Joined
- Oct 8, 2002
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considering it is a legal issue and you claiming to be an attorney and clearly being a paying part of this community maybe posting helping words or not posting anything at all would be better then thread bashing.
Minor correction: I'm not a "paying" part of the community, but I have done work for the owner and the former owner of DNForum.
No attorney can or should provide specific legal advice on a forum. Attorneys are encouraged to help promote knowledge of the law, and attorneys will sometimes comment on issues raised in a forum thread. But to actually advise a client in public would be malpractice since any attorney-client communication is required to be maintained in confidence by the attorney.
In fact, in at least four of the UDRP disputes I've handled in the last year, the Complainant used print-outs of threads from DNForum as evidence.
Trademark disputes tend to be fact specific, and in the overwhelming majority of instances where someone posts about a specific concern of theirs, there are usually incomplete facts. Among the reasons that problems are incompletely defined is that what may or may not be relevant isn't known to the person posting the question.
This thread is a good example of a common misconception widely held among DNForum members, and of people mixing up what might or might not be relevant issues.
To illustrate I'll start with the question as initially posed:
"We own a trademark on a name"
Now... that can mean a number of things to a number of people, and what that statement means can depend on what country you are in. For example, the common misconception at DNForum is that trademark rights are determined entirely by registration. This is shown in the comment above stating:
1. He registered the domain before you registered the TM - domain not registered in bad faith.
Notice that the comment refers to "before you registered the TM" when you had not mentioned whether or not your TM was registered. Trademarks need not be registered to be legally effective. What someone else had asked was "Does your trademark predate the registration of the domain?"
There's a difference there, and there's no way of telling, in your answer, whether or not you are or are not referring to the date of registration of your trademark, or an earlier date by which you may have had legally effective rights. The real headscratcher in the conversation is this passage:
Is the trademarked term generic/descriptive?
very descriptive.
There is a significant difference between "generic" and "descriptive" as those terms are used in trademark law. But a word is not "descriptive" in a vacuum. A word or phrase is only "descriptive" in the context of that to which it is applied. From this answer, one can't tell if you consider the term to be "very descriptive" as applied to your goods and services, or whether you mean the term is "very descriptive" as applied to the way the domain registrant is using it.
No chance of a court of law turning it over if we sue and he does not show up to court? He does not live in the USA.
Whether or not the domain registrant is in the US is not determinative of whether a court in the US would be able to exercise jurisdiction over the dispute.
If it is a .com name for example, the .com registry is in the US, and you didn't mention where the registrar is, where the name is hosted, and any of several other facts on which jurisdiction in the US might be premised.
In any event, my comment was not "thread bashing". My comment was merely intended to point out that the level of knowledge in the "community" is tremendously uneven, and that basing a business decision on the input of random members of it is not a good idea.