John - firstly, I do not want new members to think I am dangerous uninformed person who believes himself visited by aliens (according to you).
Whatever you think of me - my responses to you are always meant in the spirit of friendly rough and tumble combatant - simply trying to get to the truth.
I am not anti-authoritarian, just against the misuse of authority to lie and decieve the public.
So - as a matter of record - it is well documented (in correspondence and on archive.org) that I have been proven correct before - about the authorities and experts hiding the truth - even telling lies.
This is not just once - but on two occasions - neither case trivial.
I refer to vCJD transmitted in blood and the under reporting of errors in surgery in UK.
The authorities and experts were cowards and/or corrupt hiding these facts.
It was clearly not ignorance on their part - they obviously knew more than I did.
Moreover, it was not simply 'luck' that I was right - it was objective logic that they knew also.
This is not saying how more clever I am than anyone (fact: I most certainly am not) - just to say that logic and "stating the bleeding obvious" is my thing.
NOTE: This does not even mean that I am correct this time - but nobody has shown me wrong thus far.
I am quite certain that this case will prove true also.
However, only a cretin says they never make mistakes or denies when proven wrong.
This case - domains - it is quite straight-forward - where is any mistake:
Is some sort of label *essential* to identify trademark domains as such?
Yes - with most every word a trademark - how else are people to know which domains are trademark?
Trademarks are identified as such in the real world - why not on the Internet?
*Why would you not want trademarks identified as such?
Is some sort of master directory *essential* for people to ease finding trademark domains?
Yes - search engines simply search for everything - how else can people find them easily?
Or perhaps you think that people should google through thousands of references to find the business they want?
*Why would you not want trademarks to be easily found on a master directory?
Given fact that directory and label are *essential* to identify trademarks, you therefore obviously have to ask the question - why do US government and authorities not want them.
They have had many years to implement additional system.
Why stop at the DNS?
They do not even recognise these *essential* requirements - are they cowards (afraid to face facts), ignorant (/imbeciles) or corrupt (wanting to aiding corporate overreach) - or a mixture perhaps?
My money is on corruption.
Now - having got that out the way for new members - on to your very interesting post:
Garry> "You said IBM and AOL (both "well-known and strongly associated") cannot legally preclude others from using those initials in other type businesses (we both know is true) - and now you are saying they can."
John> "I am saying that the outcome of any dispute depends upon the arguments and the evidence presented by the parties to that proceeding."
However - proceedings are taken by learned people that deliberately ignore facts to aid and abet trademark overreach.
John> "I am also saying that in a case dealing with three letters such as IBM and AOL, then the Respondent had better have a durn good response."
If the domain is not being used illegally - and domains are not just for trademark holders - and "intials have inherent legitimate uses up the wazoo" - why do these law-abiding people have to explain anything?
Was it a boundary dispute - did they move into IBM area of business (or relevant area in each case)?
No - they did not.
However, if they did - there was already legal recourse for trademark of these "well-known and strongly associated" businesses.
Any crook that deliberately infringes on trademark deserves the full weight of the law.
"your statements are not only uninformed, but they are dangerous if believed and relied upon by others who do not know better"
My statements are all a matter of informed opinion (you know I have never claimed anything more) - unless identified as fact.
Please - I honestly welcome you to disprove any of the facts identified in this thread.
Or show how my opinion is mistaken.
"You have zero experience in actually dealing with these situations,"
Save for blowing away what I believed to be an overreaching trademarks firm of lawyers (supposed experts in field) with simple email, you are most correct.
I will always bow to your expertise in a court of law.
"Over the course of time, you have publically stated that I, Ari Goldberger, President Harry S Truman, the UN, and the US Congress, are all "corrupt", dishonest, and part of some conspiracy to deprive you of something"
And Uncle Tom Cobbly and All...
You do mix things somewhat John ;-)
To my knowledge: I have never called you, Ari, or any lawyer here that supports honest domain owners "corrupt".
Can you show a link where I have?
Indeed, I have publicly stated, several times, that I admire and respect your work.
However, I do say that anybody whom deliberately aids and abets trademark overreach is corrupt - or do you disagree?
I include those crooks that pervert trademark law to circumvent safeguards which prevent overreach - including those in UN.
Also - most of US Congress may be gullible ignoramuses rather than corrupt ;-)
We are all ignorant - of something or the other.
Yes - it is true that I think all lawyers somewhat self-serving in desire to keep some things hidden e.g. that UDRP is a corrupt system (i.e. biased for trademarks) - very sorry if this hurts your feelings.
If it helps - I admit that partial motivation comes from a self-serving interest - to stop overreaching corporate trademark crooks from stealing my domains.
"The "actual act of bad faith" can never be "proven" in the sense that you use the word "proof" in ANY case."
I think you mistaken: If I use WIP
rg.uk pretending to be UN WIPO - why isn't that actual act of bad faith?
"Intent is a mental act, and unlike the aliens who visit you from time to time, we do not have brain probes capable of reading thoughts."
Gulp - when do the aliens visit - it's when I am asleep, isn't it?
Quote: "III. The domain name was registered and is being used in bad faith".
http://arbiter.wipo.int/domains/decisions/html/2004/d2004-0385.html
You are mistaken - it says, "being used" - not intended to use.
Unproven intent would allow for biase of corrupt court - as seen.
If you mean the proven* intent of to resell domain to highest bidder - that is not illegal - because, as we know, the "intials have inherent legitimate** uses up the wazoo".
* Proven with actual act placing domain for sale.
** legitimate as in LEGAL.
It was the domain owners idea to get these initials first for ANY type goods or services (or personal/free-speech use) - just as it is a businesses idea to trademark initials in a SPECIFIC type of goods or service (obviously more businesses can use exact same initials for different goods or services).
The domain owner is NOT applying to register for trademark - they are NOT the same thing - are they?
IBM - I even could apply for US trademark tomorrow - for different goods or service (fulfilling requirements) - no doubt you would offer up "Imported Bull Manure" to rubbish this idea ;-)
Why should I not get IBM.newTLD to start my new business or for whatever legal reason I want then?
"If you actually read Prof. Sorkin's dissent, with which I agree, the reason he would have found differently is not because the domain name hypothetically has legitimate uses up the wazoo. What he says is on the question of legitimate interests is:"
Glad to see you agree with the Honourable Professor
However - before we go any further - it is not "hypothetical" - a FACT: in "actual practice" the domain name can have untold number of legitimate uses - you use the word "hypothetically" to lessen or weaken Respondents position.
You use semantics to support your assertion that the Respondent has the scales going against - that require him stating this basic fact.
It is FACT not OPINION: the domain has "legitimate uses up the wazoo" - nothing "hypothetical" about it - true or false?
Prof Sorkin said, "Nonetheless, under the circumstances of this case, taking into consideration the nature of the disputed domain name, the plausibility and credibility of Respondent’s claimed motivation, and all of the other evidence before the Panel, I am of the view that Complainant has failed to sustain its burden of proof on this question."
Note: "the nature of the disputed domain name" - read "legitimate uses up the wazoo".
Note: "the plausibility and credibility of Respondent’s claimed motivation, and all of the other evidence before the Panel" - read, "it does not matter what went on before - facts are facts".
Note: "I am of the view that Complainant has failed to sustain its burden of proof on this question" - read, "trademark overreach".
"The assessment of intent is a subjective exercise. The majority looked at prior cases involving this Respondent, and made inferences based on those. Prof. Sorkin put less weight on those prior cases, and more weight on other circumstances. What this suggests is that if the Respondent had been someone else, without that record of prior adverse decisions, then there would have been less support for the majority's position, and they could have gone the other way."
In your car, you go past 200 speed cameras - you are found to be speeding on three of them.
Does this mean you speed all the time?
Can the police charge you without proof next time you go past a speed camera?
A fact is a fact: SFR "intials have inherent legitimate uses up the wazoo".
"But that is why your question "What is the actual act of bad faith?" is not worth answering. The "actual act of bad faith" even in a case where you would agree there is intentional trademark infringement is the act of intent."
I think you mislead.
Fact: With intentional trademark infringement - yes - there is intent ALSO an *actual act* of plying for trade in another’s goods or services - true or false?
"Physically, it is a pattern of neuron firings in the actor's brain, and it is never anything else. The real question in determining bad faith is "What strikes the fact-finder as the most likely inference based on the circumstances?""
Like I say, unproven intent would allow for biase of corrupt court - as seen.
"The basic principle can be summarized very neatly, and the complete answer to your question is simply actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea."
"You don't get that. You will likely never get that."
That is absolutely brilliant - a masterpiece - I could not have put it any better.
Yes - a bit of legalese in Latin is always good for putting down us plebs (the common people of ancient Rome) ;-)
Why use English when Latin can show how clever you are
A tip for you - when using Latin, only use common phrases - or give the meaning.
A good page of LAWYERS LATIN for all us plebeians:
http://www.magistrates.leicestershire.btinternet.co.uk/lawyerslatin.htm
So - "An act does not make a person guilty without a guilty mind" or "the act itself does not constitute guilt unless with a guilty intent"
Duh - it *first and foremost* requires an actual act of unlawfulness - not simply guilty intent on its own.
To quote a very clever man, "You don't get that. You will likely never get that" ;-)
Please tell me - where am I wrong?