Originally posted by rapidtransit
Because trademark registrations are country-specific,
Yes ... and that's my point ... it was a rhetorical question. In many countries the concept of "common law trademark" does not exist.
Are you talking of usage after an application, or simply sticking TM on your name and "claiming" an interest in the mark. That is frankly ridiculous. Not allowable in the EU or Canada, for example, and would be a crafty way to claim rights while stealthily trying to sneak one over other holders, etc.
Further, trying to trademark or incorporate a domain name is not possible in the EU or Canada. You couldn't attempt Dnforum.com but could try Dnforum.
Stock, why are you questioning others interest in these forums, while spending an awful lot of time here yourself. You seem suspicious of others revenue generating activities (i.e. safesys), or is suspicion a way of trying to have others "reveal" what they are up to ...
No need to get testy. We're all just trying to share views here. Further, understand that the USA isn't the be all and end all with respect to trademark law. Perhaps the Germans acting in "bad faith" as you characterize them, had a long standing, pre-existing trademark in place in the EU?
I, for one, am interesting in issues pertaining to conflicting trademarks across jurisdictions and how disputes are resolved in those cases.